can someone please explain this to me Income is $150,000, MARCS depreciation is .1429, cost of the asset is $590,000 Woolard is concerned about future limitations on its 179 expense. How much 179 expense should Woolard expense this year if it wants to maximize its depreciation this year and avoid any carryover to future years? I know the answer $76641 calculated : (150000-(590000 * 01429))/ (1-.1429) But WHY? Is this a formula I should have known?