Can someone please post a more in depth analysis of the answers to this question with the formula being used each time?

GE paid the most recent dividend D0=$0.4. The market expected return is E(rM)=7% and risk-free rate is 2%. GE has a beta of 0.8. In the next two years, the dividend grows by g1=15%. At the end of second year, the company starts a constant growth method with a plowback ratio b=40%, and ROE=5%. Step by step, we calculate the intrinsic value today. Q2-a. What is the risk-adjusted discount rate? (Discount rate is in the unit of percentage. For example, suppose your answer is 1%, then you should write down 1 Round your answer to the 2nd decimal point if necessary.) Answer: k=2%+0.8(7%2%)=6%. (continued) Q2-b. What are the dividends in the next two years? A. D1=$0.46,D2=$0.529 B. D1=$0.41,D2=$0.42 (continued) Q2-c. What is the price of GE after the second dividend payment? Answer: Long-term g is 0.45%=2%. Therefore, D3=$0.5291.02=$0.5396. Using constant growth DDM, P2=6%2%$0.5396=$13.49 (continued) Q2-d. What is the intrinsic value of GE today? Answer: P0=1+6%$0.46+(1+6%)2$0.529+(1+6%)2$13.49=$12.91