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Can you answer this question??? Thanks! A stock that you know is held by long-term individual investors paid a large one-time dividend. You notice that

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A stock that you know is held by long-term individual investors paid a large one-time dividend. You notice that the price drop on the ex-dividend date is about the size of the dividend payment. You find this relationship puzzling given the tax disadvantage of dividends. Which of the following describes how the dividend capture theory might account for this behavior? (Select the best choice below.) A. Because all investors don't pay taxes on dividends, the effective rate is zero, so the price drop equals the dividend payment. B. Because corporations have a negative effective dividend tax rate, the dividend capture theory requires the effective dividend tax rate to be zero Hence, under this theory the stock price should drop by the amount of the dividend. C. Dividend capture theory states that only investors who don't pay dividend taxes are paid the dividend so their effective dividend tax rate is zero. D. Dividend capture theory states that investors with high effective dividend tax rates sell to investors with low effective dividend tax rates just before the dividend payment. The price drop therefore reflects the tax rate of the low effective dividend tax rate individuals

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