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can you please explain how you got the answer or if my answer is correct and why? thanks Assume the exchange rate is GBP 1.35/USD,

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can you please explain how you got the answer or if my answer is correct and why? thanks

Assume the exchange rate is GBP 1.35/USD, the US risk-free rate is 3.0 percent, and the UK risk-free rate is 3.0 percent. What is the implied one-year forward rate? GBP 1.30 USD GBP 1.20 USD GBP 1.25 USD GBP 1.35 USD GBP 1.40 USD

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