(Castle & Cooke, Inc. is a US Company that also has a foreign subsidiary) filed an action against Castle & Cook for employing a public official in a foreign country (an alleged violation of the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act)

Bribery is an intentional tort. If Castle and Cook does go ahead and employ a public official in another country, as its employee in that country, discuss how a litigant might claim the elements of an "intentional tort" apply?

What damages would be available?

Please not more than two hundred fifty words of discussion

and

Support your discussion with at least one Internet citation..