Company A presently has access to floating interest rate funds at SOFR$+1\%.$ Its direct borrowing cost is $11\%$ in the fixed$-$rate bond market. In contrast, company B has access to fixed$-$rate funds at $10\%$ and floating$-$rate funds at SOFR$+0\mathrm{.}7\%.$ Which company is deemed more risky by the investors in the bond markets?