Compare an American call with a strike of 50 which expires in 90 days to an American call on the same underlying asset which has a strike of 60 and expires in 120 days. The underlying asset is selling at 55. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: "The 50 strike call is inthe money and the 60 strike call is outofthemoney."

Statement 2: "The time value of the 60 strike call, as a proportion of the 60 strike call's premium, exceeds the time value of the 50 strike call as a proportion of the 50 strike call's premium."

It is asked which of the statements are true. I understand the 1st should be true since strike price 50< underlying asset price of 55. I can't understand the 2nd statement. Is it true or false? and why?