Congress passed the Commercial FraudAct and used it to reach and arrest Smith for loan sharking activities (collecting high interest loan payments).Smithclaims his criminal activity was purely local and as such subject only to local and state criminal laws and penalties.The U.S. claims Smith is subject to the harsher Federal laws and penalties enacted under the power of the commerce clause.Is Congress' use of the commerce clause to pass the Commercial FraudAct , and to reach Smith, a lawful use of the commerce clause power?Cite any case(s) that may support your position.