Consider a $400 million pass-through MBS that has just been created (so the 'seasoning' of the pass-through is equal to 0). The underlying pool of mortgages each has a maturity of 20 years and an annual mortgage coupon rate of 6%. The pass-through rate of the mortgage pool is 5%. Assuming a prepayment multiplier of 100 PSASuppose we construct principal-only (PO) and interest-only (IO) mortgage-backed securities (MBS) using the mortgage pass-through What is the present value of the PO MBS if we use an annual risk-free rate of 4.5% to value the cash-flows?