Consider a firm with no asset in place and one current project which will generate cash flow y at time 1. The firm has an outstanding debt and its face value D is 8. The cash flow y may take the values of 0, 5, and 10, with probability of 0.3, 0.4, and 0.3, respectively. The interest rate is zero. The market is competitive, and all information is symmetric.

(1) What's the market value of the debt now?

(2) What's the market value of the equity now?

Now consider the equity owner of the firm who has personal fund of 1. This fund is outside the firm and not required to repay debt. The owner has a potential investment opportunity to change the operation. This investment requires investment of 1 and it can change the distribution of the firm cash flow y to a new probability distribution of 0, 0.7, and 0.3 for y values of 0, 5, and 10, respectively.

(3) If the firm has no debt outstanding, will the owner make this investment?

(4) Now given that the firm has an outstanding debt with face value of 8, will the owner make this investment? Why?

(5) What is this effect called in the literature? What is the intuition?

It is a question for review for final exam but i don't really know how to do it. It will not be submitted anywhere.