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Consider Promissory Estoppel and Quasi-Contracts. Should these doctrines exist? Should the courts have wiggle room to enforce deals that fail to meet the formal contract
Consider Promissory Estoppel and Quasi-Contracts. Should these doctrines exist? Should the courts have "wiggle room" to enforce deals that fail to meet the formal contract requirements? Or, should the rule be "If it's not an actual contract, too bad. No deal".
Consider for instance the case of Hamer v. Sidway...
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