Question
Consider the binomial distribution P(k) = b(k; n, p). Show that: (i) P(k) b(k; n,p) == (n-k+1)p P(k-1) b(k-1; n, p) = kq 0.
Consider the binomial distribution P(k) = b(k; n, p). Show that: (i) P(k) b(k; n,p) == (n-k+1)p P(k-1) b(k-1; n, p) = kq 0. (ii) P(k) > P(k-1) for k < (n+1)p and P(k) < P(k-1) for k > (n+1)p.
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Get StartedRecommended Textbook for
Linear Algebra with Applications
Authors: Steven J. Leon
7th edition
131857851, 978-0131857858
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