Consider the following term structure of interest rates: r$01=2\mathrm{.}1\%,$ r$02=3\mathrm{.}4\%,$ r$03=4\%.$ Assume that the forward interest rate for $2$ years in the market is r$1,3=3\%.$ Are there arbitrage opportunities in the economy? If there are, will they tend to disappear or to aggravate in the market place?