Question
Could anyone help me with part b ? thanks! Q4 (a) Given, Beta of mutual fund: 1.2 Expected Return of mutual fund: 9% Risk free
Could anyone help me with part b ? thanks!
Q4
(a)
Given,
Beta of mutual fund: 1.2
Expected Return of mutual fund: 9%
Risk free rate 2%
Market Return 5%
1) Fund's Alpha
Alpha = Expected return - CAPM return
CAPM return = risk free rate + Beta (Market return - risk free
return) = 0.02 + 1.2*(0.05-0.01) = 6.80%
Alpha = 9% - 6.80% = 2.2%
2) Yes, we should invest in a fund as it is generating positive
alpha that means it is generating returns higher than the systematic risk
involved in the fund due to superior investing.
3) Passive portfolio
As passive portfolio is a portfolio based on market index. Beta
of such passive portfolio invested 100% in the market is 1. The required beta
of the mutual fund is 1.2 so this portfolio needs to be invested more in market
by borrowing at risk free rate.
So to get the beta of 1.2 following weights are required:
120% on market portfolio
-20% on risk-free asset
4) Return on passive portfolio
Return = 1.2*(5%) -0.2*(2%) = 5.6%
5) Difference between the returns:
Difference = Expected return on mutual fund - Expected Return on
passive fund = 9% - 5% = 4%
This difference arises because mutual fund is generating higher
return than the systematic return undertaken because of positive alpha but the
passive fund is just generating the required return according to the level of
the systematic risk undertaken.
b)
i. There are sufficient securities to diversify away idiosyncratic risk
ii. In a single-factor security market, all well-diversified
portfolios have to satisfy the expected return-beta
relationship of the CAPM to satisfy the no-arbitrage
condition. The APT does not require the restrictive assumptions
of the CAPM and its (unobservable) market portfolio.
The price of this generality is that the APT does not
guarantee this relationship for all securities at all times. If the
arbitrage position is not perfectly well diversified, an increase in its scale (borrowing
cash, or borrowing shares to go short) will increase the risk of the arbitrage position,
potentially without bound. The APT ignores this complication.
iii. At t=0
TradeCash Flow
Long the mutual fund1
Short the market index-1.2
Borrow at the risk-free rate.0.2
Initial Investment0
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