could someone help me with 8-1 and 8-2??

be be 8-1) The following is the Summary of Aged Accounts Receivable List as at December 31, 2016 Total Current Overdue 1-30 Overdue 31-60 Overdue 61- Overdue > 90 Receivables |(not overdue) | days days 90 days days $897,000 $325,000 $228,000 $174,000 $128,000 $42,000 1% is 5% is 10% is 15% is 20% is estimated to estimated to estimated to be estimated to estimated to be uncollectable. be uncollectable. | uncollectable. uncollectable. | uncollectable. On December 30, 2016, the company wrote off a total amount of $100,000 accounts receivable. On December 31, 2016, the unadjusted balance in the Allowance for doubtful accounts is a debit balance of $54,000. Assume the company uses the allowance account method for bad debts based on the Summary of Aged Accounts Receivable List. The company does not estimate the uncollectible percentage based on the total outstanding receivables. Rather, the company applies different percentages depending on the aging of Accounts Receivable, as shown in the Summary of Aged Accounts Receivable List. What should be the bad expense amount that should be reported on the income statement ended on December 31, 2016? 113650 8-2) Johnny Goodman Inc (JGI) is a large public company that operates in the brewing industry. Selected financial information from their most recent financial statements for the year ending December 31, 2010 is presented below. Current Assets $4,500,000 Current Liabilities $2,800,000 JGI currently uses the AR (accounts receivable) aging method to value their AFDA (Allowance for Doubtful Account). The accountant tells you that if he had used the percentage of Sales allowance method, the AFDA balance would have been $25,000 higher. If JDI used the percentage of sales allowance method to value the AFDA instead of the AR Aging method, what should be the current ratio? 1.6 or as long as it is 1.6 or close enough, that is fine. = Exactly 1.598214 112