Do you agree with the explanation of the author of a paper entitled The Fisher Effect in the Spanish Case: A Preliminary Study (Jareno and Tolentino, 2012) which states that the cause of the existence of The Fisher Effect in Spain is probably caused by a lack of liberalization or competition in several sectors of the Spanish economy, in the sense that firms in the industry can easily transmit inflationary shocks to their output prices. please include reference sources. Thank You.