Does Adam Smith believe that a wealthy society is always a happy society? Why or why not?

Make a claim (an argument) that takes a clear position (yes or no) on the above question and provides one or more reasons to support your position. Also, provide evidence, from the text of the Wealth of Nations, exploring both sides of the question: Why we might believe Smith equates wealth with happiness and why we might not. You should draw on Smith's arguments about human nature and its potential both to establish and threaten the conditions of a wealthy, prosperous society. This evidence should be presented in a way that shows why your position is correct and the other position is wrong. (ie: critique the other argument)