Does the Statute of Frauds, a legal principle from the 1600's, still make sense in today's commercial world? Why or why not?

Justify your response using a specific example.

The death of a promisor in a personal services contract discharges an agreement.However, if a promisor dies, other types of contracts live on. Is this sensible?Why? Would it be better to discharge all kinds of agreements if one of the parties passes away?Justify your response with specific reasons, facts, and examples.