During December 2017 inventory with a cost of $130,000 was sold on account for $150,000 (assume a perpetual inventory system, not a periodic one). Cash collections for the same period were $165,000

In addition to the above (not included in the $150,000 of sales) was one sale of inventory with a cost of $20,000 and a selling price of $30,000 where the credit manager predicted only a 10% chance of actually getting paid but the transaction was carried out anyway - the terms of the sale required payment in 60 days this amount has not yet been collected and is not yet overdue as at December 31. (Part marks available if you explain your reasoning.)

I need help answering the second part