Facts: Argent Corporation reports short-term obligations of $15,000,000 in the current liability section of its statement of financial position at December 31, 2020 (its year-end). This amount includes the current portion of 12% long-term debt in the amount of $10,000,000 (matures in March 2021). Management has stated its intention to refinance the 12% debt whereby no portion of it will mature during 2021. The financial statements are issued on March 25, 2021. Question 1: Based solely on the above facts, would management be correct under US GAAP if they classified the $10,000,000 portion of the above debt as long-term as of 12/31/2020? Why or why not? Question 2: Using the same fact pattern, now assume that Argent Corporation issues $13,000,000 of 10-year bonds to the public on January 18, 2021 and management uses the proceeds to liquidate the $10,000,000 short-term debt on February 8, 2021. Question 3: Would the classification of the $10,000,000 debt at December 31, 2020 be the same under IFRS and US GAAP? Explain your answer.