Question
First, restructure the balance sheet into a managerial balance sheet by re-arranging it to include the working capital requirement. Then answer the questions that follow.
First, restructure the balance sheet into a managerial balance sheet by re-arranging it to include the working capital requirement. Then answer the questions that follow. Treat pre-paid expenses the same as you would accounts receive-able. As a check on your work. You should arrive at a capital employed (left hand side of the managerial balance sheet) of $1,090).
The balance sheet of a firm is (in millions of $):
Cash | 75 | Short term debt | 50 | |||
A/R | 65 | A/P | 35 | |||
Pre-paid expense | 10 | Long term debt | 900 | |||
Inventory | 75 | Owner's equity | 140 | |||
Net fixed assets | 900 | |||||
1125 | 1125 |
The income statement is (in millions of $):
Revenue | 1600 | |||
Cost of goods sold | -1160 | |||
Sales and administration expenses | -200 | |||
Depreciation | -55 | |||
EBIT | 185 | |||
Net interest expense | -65 | |||
Earnings before tax (EBT) | 120 | |||
Income tax expense | -95 | |||
Earnings after tax (EAT) | 25 | |||
Dividends | -10 | |||
Retained earnings | 15 |
(E) What is the firms ROE?
(F) What is the firms operating profit margin?
(G)What is the firms cash flow (BEFORE it pays a dividend and BEFORE it pays taxes but AFTER it pays interest on the debt)?
(H)What is the self-sustainable growth rate ?
(I)What concerns you about the firms financial condition (there is more than one correct answer)?
(A) It doesnt have enough long term debt
(B) It has a lot of debt. This means that if its cash flow drops too much it will not be able to meet the interest payments on the debt and risks bankruptcy
(C)It has a lot of debt. This means that if its cash flow drops too much it will not be able to meet the dividend payments because it has to make the interest payments ahead of the interest payments. If it cuts the dividend payment it will shake investor confidence in the stock
(D)Nothing, the balance sheet is in fine shape
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