For many years in professional tennis at least until recently, the winner's purse for the women's championship matches was less than what men were paid for winning the same championships, such as Wimbledon and the U.S. Open. One of the arguments given for paying women less was that women play only the best out of three sets while men had to win three of five sets for their championships. Since men played more games, it was argued, they should be paid more.

Does economic analysis support such a claim? Why or why not? Explain your answer.