Hello, I need help with the following question. For part A) I believe the answers are based on the assumptions of the model, however, I'm not sure of the full explanation. Also, what is meant by one analogy in part B), is it regarding the formula or what, any help would be really appreciated.

A) Assume the one-year forward rate starting in 6 months is 2% and the volatility of future spot rates is 5% per annum. All questions relate to the Black (1976) interest rate model. Are the statements TRUE/FALSE, explain.

1. The standard deviation of the logarithm of 1-year spot rate starting in 6 months is 5%;

2. The 1-year spot rate starting in 6 months is normally distributed;

3.The current expected value of the 1-year spot rate starting in 6 months is 2%;

4.The current expected value of the logarithm of the 1-year spot rate starting in 6 months is 194bp (rounded);

B) Draw one analogy between the Black (1976) model and the Black- Scholes (1973) option pricing model. Justify your reasoning in detail.