Hello,

My name is Caroline, business student and I have an assignment to do about Contract Law. I'm going to write down the question to be easier to be understood.

Clive ended his relationship with David when he discovered that David had been unfaithful to him (Clive) throughout their relationship. Clive decided to sell some of the expensive jewelry that David had given him in order to finance his new part-time degree course. Clive put a notice on the notice board at work on 7/01/2020 advertising it which read as follows: "FOR SALE: Beautiful 2.5 carat diamond bracelet. Unwanted gift, never worn. Worth 20,000, will sell for 15,500 or nearest offer. No time wasters please. Contact Clive ext 666 or 087 6666666.''

Stewart left a note on Clive's desk on the morning of January 8th 2020 saying that he wanted to buy the bracelet for his wife to make up for having crashed her car, and that he would pay 15,500. Clive was in meetings all day on the 8th and did not go back to his desk to check for messages before he left work on the evening of January 8th .

Clive did not see Stewart's note until the morning of January 9th .

Damien rang Clive on his mobile at 7.30 p.m. on the evening of January 8th and offered him 15,000 for the bracelet, which he accepted.

Stewart now claims that he has an enforceable contract with Clive as he left his note on Clive's desk message was left before the conversation between Damien and Clive took place.

Does Clive have a contract with Stewart?

Does Clive have a contract with Damien?

So, in short, what I understood is that Clive doesn't have a contract with Stewart, because he didn't see the note as he was in meetings, then there was no acceptance to have a contract despite of the offer. Also, he wrote down 2 numbers as a way of contacting him. And, even though, Stewart offered to pay 15,500, the notice on the board was saying nearest offer. Am I right? Is there any more considerations that I can base my answers on?

Thanks a million!

Best wishes,

Caroline.