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helphelp... As in the preceding example, let Z, V, and W be independent random variables with mean 0 and variance 1, and let X :

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As in the preceding example, let Z, V, and W be independent random variables with mean 0 and variance 1, and let X : Z -l- Vand Y : Z -l- W. We have found that p(X,Y) : 1/2. a) It follows that: b) Suppose that X and Y are measured in dollars. Let X' and Y' be the same random variables, but measured in cents, so that X' = lOUX and Y' = lUOY' Then, c) Suppose now that X : 3Z + 3V -l- 3 and 17 : 2Z 2W. Then d) Suppose now that the variance of Z is replaced by a very large number. Then p (*X

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