Hi, the background is in Canada, in the area of law and economics

Under what circumstances should a governmental entity have the power to compel a private property owner to sell his or her property to the government?

Describe the difference between willingness-to-pay and willingness-to-accept, and briefly explain why they may not be the same value.

When land is expropriated, the government pays the fair market value of the land to the owner. Give two reasons why the private property owner is typically worse off after their land is expropriated.