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How do you suppose households had monies during COVID-19 to purchase goods and services? Is it possible that our country's aggregate demand curve has shifted

How do you suppose households had monies during COVID-19 to purchase goods and services? Is it possible that our country's aggregate demand curve has shifted to the right and caused our economy to fall into a recessionary gap? Since there is less money being circulated within our economy do you believe this has led to a decrease in household consumption?

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