i have trouble understanding how to incorporate CAP rates into the normal perpetuity and annuity formulas.

We just signed a lease contract in a 200,000 SF office building complex for $25/SF/year with rents paid in arrears (at the end of the year) annually. The rent will increase by 3% per year. The discount rate is 10%/year.

a. What is the value of this office building, assuming that the building is sold at the end of year 10 and the cap rate at that time is expected to be 10%? What is the implied cap rate at time 0?

could I please get some step-by-step solution help?