If an agent-employee injures a third party during the course of employment, under the doctrine of respon- deat superior, the employer may be held liable for the employees action even though the employer did not authorize the action and was not even aware of it. Is it fair to hold the employer liable in this situation? Would it be more equitable if the employee alone was held liable for his or her tortious (legally wrongful) actions to third parties, even when the actions were committed within the scope of employment? Pease include citations.