In 2019, an opinion columnist in the Wall Street Journal observed,"Starbucks is in some ways the victim of its success, having attracted increasingly aggressive competitors into what is now a fairly crowded market." Did the entry of these competitors into the coffee house market make the demand for Starbucks coffee more price elastic or more price inelastic? Briefly explain.

One study found that the price elasticity of demand for soda is -0.78, while the price elasticity of demand for Coca-Cola is -1.22. Coca-Cola is a type of soda, so why isn't its price elasticity the same as the price elasticity for soda as a product?