In recording amortization of intangible asset, why isn't there an entry such as a credit to accumulated amortization? Why isn't it done the equivalent way we'd have for a fixed asset by keeping track of accumulated depreciation. Instead I notice the value of whatever the intangible asset is$,$ is directly reduced by crediting the intangible asset When it's time to amortize. I$\text{'}$m guessing we could reduce the value of a fixed asset too directly. Just want to confirm that there hasn't been any recent changes to the idea of accumulated depreciation.