In the \"complete Keynesian model\

2. In the "complete Keynesian model", the investment functions was I - 10 - f(i). An analyst now proposes the following investment function: I - 10 - f(i) + gy, where "g" is a parameter and Y is national income = GDP. Provide two different arguments, i.e. explanations as to why this investment function makes sense. (16 points).