In the early 2010s, the government of Argentina put in place a new policy (sometimes called the "dollar clamp") to prevent the people of Argentina from exchanging pesos, the local currency, for U.S. dollars. As a result of the policy, the peso was artificially overvalued in the official market.

Given how the foreign exchange market works (exchange rate determined by supply and demand), is it harder for a government to intervene to keep its currency overvalued or intervene to keep its currency undervalued? Briefly explain why.