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In this question, you will verify that the value of a long futures position to be held over an interval of time is always 0

In this question, you will verify that the value of a long futures position to be held over an interval
of time is always 0. First the futures price is defined as
FStS(t,T)=EQ[S(T)|Ft],0tT.
(a) Verify that FS(t,T) is a martingale w.r.t filtration Ft under Q. Hence (no proof), by the
martingale representation theorem, there exists a process widetilde()(t), adapted to Ft, such that
FutS(t,T)=FS(0,T)+0twidetilde()(u)dwidetilde(W)(u),0tT.
In SDE form,
dFutS(t,T)=widetilde()(t)dwidetilde(W)(t).
(b) Let tt0t1(t)R(t)x(t)dx(t)=R(t)x(t)dt+(t)dFutS(t,T).d(D(t)x(t))=D(t)(t)widetilde()(t)dwidetilde(W)(t)t0x(t0)=0EQ[D(t1)x(t1)|Ft0]=0.x(t)t0x(t1)(u)-=1(u)-=-10t0 and consider an agent who at times t between t0 and t1 holds (t) futures
contracts. It costs nothing to change the position in futures contracts, but because the futures
contracts generate cash flow, the agent may have cash to invest or need to borrow in order to
execute this strategy. HeShe does this investing andor borrowing at the interest rate R(t).
Let x(t)be the value (profitloss)of this agent's portfolio. Then
dx(t)=R(t)x(t)dt+(t)dFutS(t,T).
Use It's lemma to verify that
d(D(t)x(t))=D(t)(t)widetilde()(t)dwidetilde(W)(t)
(c) Assume that at time t0 the agent's profit isx(t0)=0. Verify that
EQ[D(t1)x(t1)|Ft0]=0.
You have just shown that by treating x(t)as a bond, the value at time t0of a payment x(t1)
is0. Since a futures contract must be held as one unit, choosing (u)-=1 for the long and
(u)-=-1 for the short are enough.
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