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Is it constitutional for a city to pass a local ordinance that bans the use obscene materials in billboard advertising? No because advertising is partically

Is it constitutional for a city to pass a local ordinance that bans the use obscene materials in billboard advertising?

No because advertising is partically protected speech

Yes if the law passes the requirements of the Central Hudson test

Yes because obscenity is unprotected

No because the First Amendment protects advertising

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