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Is it possible to have a variable-overhead efficency variance of zero? Would that be correct in saying it is not favoruable (F) nor unfavourable (U)
Is it possible to have a variable-overhead efficency variance of zero?
Would that be correct in saying it is not favoruable (F) nor unfavourable (U)
and what does that mean?
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Disruption In The Audit Market
Authors: Krish Bhaskar, John Flower
1st Edition
0367220660, 978-0367220662
