It is said that the entire financial fortune of the British Empire can be computed using the compound rate of interest 4.8% applied to the gold that the English stole from the Spanish in the sixteenth century. If this was the case and by the year 1550 the English had stolen the amount $14,400,000, what would the value of the British Empire have been at its peak in 1950 assuming compounding based on annual stops?

It is said that the entire financial fortune of the British Empire can be computed using the compound rate of interest 4.2% applied to the gold that the English stole from the Spanish in the sixteenth century. If this was the case and by the year 1550 the English had stolen the amount $17,700,000, what would the value of the British Empire have been at its peak in 1950 assuming compounding based on annual stops?