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Let a be an element of R and let f and g be functions defined at R. Is the claim true or false? If false

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Let a be an element of R and let f and g be functions defined at R. Is the claim true or false? If false prove with a counter example.

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(c) If limp-0 f(cth)-f(c-h) = k, then f is differentiable at c with f' (c) = k

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