Question
Let say the demand is Q=40-P So, the inverse demand curve is P = 40-Q Total Revenue = Price x Quantity = (40-Q)*Q = 40Q-Q2
Let say the demand is Q=40-P
So, the inverse demand curve is P = 40-Q
Total Revenue = Price x Quantity = (40-Q)*Q = 40Q-Q2
Marginal Revenue is ?dQd?? TR = 40-2Q ....we can clearly see that the inverse demand equation and MR equation are same except the Q and 2Q. The 2Q suggests that the intercept of the MR equation on the X axis will be half that of the demand curve.
Say we in case of inverse demand we consider P = 0, then Q = 40. We got a point(40,0) on the X axis and when we consider Q = 0, we get P = 40. We got another point (0,40) on the Y axis.
Similarly for MR the points will be (20,0) in the X axis and (0,40) on the Y axis. We can clearly see that the intercept in the X axis is halved. We have use this concept here for determining the MR curve as Profit maximizing criteria is MR = MC
The lowest price a firm charges at the point where Average Variable Cost (AVC) curve intersects MC curve.
Step-by-step explanation
a)
To maximize the profit the firm will consider the point where MR =MC
So, the price CEU will request is 10cents per KW hour and will produce around 22KW-Hours per day in millions.
b)
Here P* and Q* are the Price an quantity that CEU will charge respectively.
P* = 9 cents per KW Hour (approx.)
Q* = 53 million KW-Hour day
c)
The lowest price will be 6 cents per KW hour and lowest quantity produced will be 39.8 million KW-Hours per day(approx.)
d)
Yes, the objection is valid. Though this is the price(MC=AVC) that a firm can charge without exiting the market, the profit level is negative at this price.
The zero profit situation is where ATC = MC [drawn in the first diagram, below it the firm will be experiencing a loss. A price where MC intersects the AVC indicates the firm is now operating at a cost equal to the Total Fixed Cost and as the Variable costs are not considered in this case there is a negative profit margin or Loss.
My question is regarding this question...
Where is this person coming up with Q = 40-P and I'm not seeing how it's translating to their graph. Also, how is the AVC calculated?
Here are the graphs from my questions as they've changed slightly.
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