Let x$,$ y be variables whose domain is the set of real numbers $.$ Which result of first$-$order logic justifies the statement below?

$$x$$y $($x $+$ y $=0)$ is logically equivalent to $$y$$x $($x $+$ y $=0)$

Group of answer choices

Definability laws

De Morgan$$s laws

Distributive laws

Commutative laws