Lets say that a company applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours, using a predetermined overhead
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Question:
Lets say that a company applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours, using a predetermined overhead rate. So at the end of the current year, the Manufacturing Overhead account has a credit balance. Can anyone explain why and what possible explanations could be for this? What disposition should be made of this balance? Any help would greatly appreciated.
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