An 18 years old female with no previous significant medical history was admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a three day history of headaches, confusion, agitation, and vomiting. The illness started with a sore throat three days prior to hospital admission. The patient presented to her physician with aches and pains in her arms and legs a day prior to admission. and was given painkillers assuming a viral illness diagnosis. She had a petechial rash covering her torso and legs. Four milliliters of turbid cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) were obtained by lumber puncture. CSF protein was elevated and glucose decreased. The CSF was sent to the laboratory for culture and susceptibility. Although organisms were seen on the direct Gram's stain of the CSF, numerous polymorphonuclear white cells were present. Blood cultures were also obtained from the patient and sent to the laboratory. At 24 hours incubation, blood cultures were positive, revealing grey, round, smooth, and glistening colonies on blood and chocolate agars (see image). Gram's stain of the blood culture media and colonies revealed gram-negative diplococci that were oxidase-positive. The CSF culture was negative for bacterial growth at 24 hours. Questions 1. Based on the patient's symptoms and blood culture isolate, what is the causative agent of infection? 2. How is this organism transmitted, thereby causing infection? 3. What testing is appropriate for identification of this isolate?