Milton Friedman states, "the operative function of payment in accordance with product in a market society is not primarily distributive, but allocative." What does he mean and how does it provide an argument for the capitalist principle. Develop an argument from Hacker and Pierson(Winner Take All Politics) and Piketty(The Rise of the Supermanagers) that even if the argument you have explained were correct in principle, it would not justify the changes that have taken place or so in the distribution of income in the United States over the past 40 years