Needed ASAP! quality answers only.

1. Why do a ,,,,,Split?

2. The National Company responsible for the company where I work has recently

published a document stating that the levered beta of the sector of energy

transportation is 0.471870073 (yes, 9 decimals). They obtained this number by

considering the betas in the sector, ranging between -0.24 and 1.16. What is the point

of being so precise with the betas? Does it make any sense to apply the same beta to

all the companies in a sector?43

3. What is the Capital Cash Flow? Is it the same with Free Cash Flow?

4. Is there any consensus between the main authors in finance regarding the market risk

premium?

5. How can we calculate a company's cost of capital in emerging nations, especially

when there is no state bond which we could take as a reference?

6. What is NOPAT (Net Operating Profit After Tax)?

7. What is EBITDA (Earnings Before Interest, Taxes, Depreciation and Amortization)?

8. I do not understand the meaning of Working Capital Requirements. I think it should

be similar to Working Capital (Current Assets - Current Liabilities). Am I right?53

9. Why can we not calculate the required return (Ke) from the Gordon-Shapiro model

[P0 = Div0 (1+g) / (Ke - g)] instead of using the CAPM? As we know the current

dividend (Div0) and the current share price (P0), we can obtain the growth rate of the

dividend from the formula g = ROE (1-p)/(1 - ROE (1-p)), p being the payout.

10. Assume I calculate g as ROE (1-p)/(1-ROE (1-p)) and the Ke from the CAPM. I replace

both values in the formula PER = (ROE (1+g) - g)/ROE (Ke-g) but the PER I obtain is

totally different from the one I get by dividing the quotation of the share to the

earnings per share. Is it possible to interpret that difference as an overvaluation or

undervaluation of that share on the market?