On December 31 year 1, Company purchased machine A for $770,000 and machine B for $300,000. The machines Are depreciated on a straight line basis over 10 years with no salvage value. Company reviews of the assets for impairment annually, well doing the GAAP Impairment analysis at the end of year 6 Company determines that the expected future cash flow's are 70,000 per year machine A & 40,000 per year from machine B, over the remaining life of the assets. At December 31 year six the fair value a machines A & B are $300,000 and $180,000 respectively. What amount of impairment loss shit company report on it's year six income statement under GAAP?

$35,000, $85,000, $50,000 or zero