Please answer:

(a) Why must both a promissory note and a mortgage deed be executed simultaneously in order to properly create a mortgage loan? (b) What will happen if this promissory note does not contain a non-recourse provision? (c) What will happen if only a promissory note is executed when making the loan, but no mortgage deed is executed? (d) Assume that the borrower defaults on their loan obligations. For a non-judicial foreclosure to be possible, how must the mortgage loan have been created