Please answer in Mathlab code

Don't want manual calculation

(c) Show that the function z = ef sin y + ey cos x satisfies Laplace equation = 0. (5 marks) (d) For the following equations, find me if z = f(x,y) is implicitly defined as a function of x and y. (1) yet? - 3ye? = -4zety + 1 (4 marks) (ii) 2xz* - 5 In(xyz) = 42