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Please explain why necessities have an income elasticity of less than 1, why luxury have income elasticity of greater than 1?, why inferior goods is

Please explain why necessities have an income elasticity of less than 1, why luxury have income elasticity of greater than 1?, why inferior goods is less than 0? and which real life example goods have income elasticity equals to 1?

Average income Average income (SF/wk) (5/Wk) Necessity (n 1) Inferior good (1]

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