please solve correctly do not copy paste

otherwise I give downvote

(5 points) Prove the following converse to Theorem 3.6 from the lecture notes: Let f: be a sometry and :U a parametrisation at p. Then ~:=f is a parametrisation of ~ at f(p) nd E=E,F=F and G=G. (5 points) A conformal map is defined in a similar way to an isometry except we require only that