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Problem 1. If f(x) has an inverse function f-(x), could either the graph of f(x) or the graphof f(x) be symmetric with respect to the

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Problem 1. If f(x) has an inverse function f-¹(x), could either the graph of f(x) or the graphof f¹(x) be symmetric with respect to the y-axis? Explain your reasoning or use an example toillustrate your answer.

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